Florida Sale Away Corporation Northeastern Division has sales of $525,000 in the year 2001. By 2012, sales had increased to $1,200,000. The Vice President of Marketing has requested that you calculate for her what the average annual rate of increase is on sales for the Northeastern Division.
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How Cost Accounting Distorts Product Costs
How Cost Accounting Distorts Product Costs.
summarize the article \"How Cost Accounting Distorts Product Costs\"
500 words
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summarize the article \"How Cost Accounting Distorts Product Costs\"
500 words
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Activity Based Management at W.S.Industries (A)
Activity Based Management at W.S.Industries (A)
For the case discussion, we have to response to the article \"Activity-based Management at W.S Industries\"... We have these main questions that we have to answer (A). What are the main differences between the old cost system at W.S. Industries and the new ABC system? (B). W.S. Industries used ABC to drive continuous improvement projects (CIPs). Was it a good idea to link incentives to CIPs? Did W.S. Industries need ABC to execute CIPs? Wouldn\'t workers dream up CIP based on their local knowledge as long as their incentives were linked to savings from CIPs? (C). Is it useful to classify activities as value added and non-value added for CIPs?
500 words
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For the case discussion, we have to response to the article \"Activity-based Management at W.S Industries\"... We have these main questions that we have to answer (A). What are the main differences between the old cost system at W.S. Industries and the new ABC system? (B). W.S. Industries used ABC to drive continuous improvement projects (CIPs). Was it a good idea to link incentives to CIPs? Did W.S. Industries need ABC to execute CIPs? Wouldn\'t workers dream up CIP based on their local knowledge as long as their incentives were linked to savings from CIPs? (C). Is it useful to classify activities as value added and non-value added for CIPs?
500 words
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Frito-Lay, Inc.Sun Chips Multigrain Snacks summarizing the main marketing problem, the key facts, and identifying potential future actions addressing the marketing problem
Frito-Lay, Inc.Sun Chips™ Multigrain Snacks
summarizing the main marketing problem, the key facts, and identifying potential future actions addressing the marketing problem (maximum length = 2 pages).
Click here for the SOLUTION
summarizing the main marketing problem, the key facts, and identifying potential future actions addressing the marketing problem (maximum length = 2 pages).
Click here for the SOLUTION
OPS 571 Operations Management original
1) __________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed
A. Buffering
B. Blocking
C. Starving
D. Pacing
2) According to your text, the most common process metric is
A. productivity
B. efficiency
C. utilization
D. throughput time
3) Declining product prices
A. increase the manufacturing costs
! B. lower the break-point
C. result in lower manufacturing costs
D. increase the break-even point
4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at a controlled rate is
A. job shop
B. batch
C. assembly line
D. project
5) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is
A. job shop
B. batch shop
C. group technology cell
D. assembly line
6) The break-even analysis is a standard approach to determine alternative processes A break-even analysis chart usually present alternative __________ and __________ based upon the units produced or sold
A. demand, supply
B. profits, losses
C. equipment, materials
D. variable, fixed costs
7) A statistical term that refers to the philosophy and methods companies use to eliminate defects in their products and processes by establishing a quality goal of no more than four defects out of every million units is
A. ISO 9000
B. Six Sigma
C. Total Quality Management
D. SERVQUAL
8) Independent demand is:
A. inventory where demand comes from independent suppliers
B. inventory that is independent of any known rules of demand and supply
C. demand that is related to the demand for another item
D. demand determined by the marketplace that requires forecasting
9) An inventory system designed to ensure that an item will be available on an ongoing basis throughout the year is known as
! A. Optional Replenishment System
B. Inventory Accuracy and Cycle Counting
C. ABC Inventory Planning
D. Multiperiod Inventory Systems
10) A/an __________ approach actually schedules in detail each resource using the setup and runtime required for each order
A. infinite loading
B. finite loading
C. forward scheduling
D. backward scheduling
11) What is the net result of reducing the duration of a task (crashing) not on the critical path?
A. Decreased project overhead costs
B. Reduced likelihood of liquidated damages for late delivery
C. Increased slack time associated with the task
!D. Reduction in the project duration
12) The idea of the value density calculation is
A. finding a carrier that can handle the weight
B. matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier
C. deciding where items should be stocked geographically and how they should be shipped
D. finding the minimum cost carrier
13) When designing a supply chain,
! A. cost vs customer service must be considered
B. quality vs cost must be considered
C. lead times vs payment terms must be considered
D. customer service vs product customization must be considered
14) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Custom products
B. Innovative products
C. Grocery products
D. High technology products
15) Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
A. Price promotions that expire on a specific date
B. An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
C. Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
D. A 2-for-1 price promotion
16) The best operating level is
A. the maximum point of the cost curve
B. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized
C. maximum capacity
D. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized
17) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as
A. Capacity used – best operating level
B. Capacity used x best operating level
C. Capacity used / best operating level
D. Capacity used + best operating level
18) The objective of __________ is to provide an approach for determining the overall capacity level of capital-intensive resources that best supports the company's long-range competitive strategy
A. workforce management
B. management supervision
C. operations management
!D. strategic capacity planning
19) Lean production systems typically require
A. delivery of large lots at frequent intervals
B. buyer inspection of goods and materials
C. multiple sources from which to purchase
D. low inventory levels throughout production
20) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand The next forecast is 66 What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
A. 002
B. 04
C. 004
D. 0.25
21) Linear regression sales forecasting techniques
A. work best when future sales are randomly distributed
B. will not work for declining sales
C. work best when sales are increasing
! D. will not work if future sales forecasts lie on a curve
22) What should the value of alpha be in an exponential smoothing forecast to be very responsive to recent demand?
A. Large
B. Small
C. Negative
D. Zero
23) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting?
A. Time series analysis employs empirical data to forecast future events
B. Time series analysis is used to understand the system underlying and surrounding the item being forecast
C. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-based components such as daily, weekly, etc
D. Time series methods are useful for long-range forecasts when the demand pattern is erratic
24) One option for altering the pattern of demand is
A. hiring employees
B. using overtime
C. carrying inventory
D. pricing
25) Aggregate planners balance
A. demand and costs
B. demand and inventories
C. demand and capacity
D. supply and inventories
26) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy?
A. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deals with the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime
B. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts production to another level and produces at that level for several more months
C. The firm matches its production rate to meet demand by varying the size of its workforce as demand varies
D. The firm produces the same amount each day within the planning period and deals with variations in demand through the use of outsourcing partners
27) Which of the following reflects net material requirements:
A. gross requirements – scheduled receipts
B. gross requirements – projected available balance + scheduled receipts
! C. gross requirements – projected available balance - scheduled receipts
D. gross requirements – scheduled releases
28) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item?
A. Inventory records file
B. Bills of material
C. Master production schedule
D. Capacity planning
29) Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?
A. Based on independent demand
B. Lot sizing is based on Economic Order Quantity
C. Demand pattern is random
D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs
30) A Material Requirements Planning (MRP) is most valuable in industries where a number of products are made in batches using the same productive equipment and with companies involving
!A. fabrication
B. low number of units annually
C. complex, expensive products
D. assembly operations
Click here for the SOLUTION
1) __________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed
A. Buffering
B. Blocking
C. Starving
D. Pacing
2) According to your text, the most common process metric is
A. productivity
B. efficiency
C. utilization
D. throughput time
3) Declining product prices
A. increase the manufacturing costs
! B. lower the break-point
C. result in lower manufacturing costs
D. increase the break-even point
4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at a controlled rate is
A. job shop
B. batch
C. assembly line
D. project
5) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is
A. job shop
B. batch shop
C. group technology cell
D. assembly line
6) The break-even analysis is a standard approach to determine alternative processes A break-even analysis chart usually present alternative __________ and __________ based upon the units produced or sold
A. demand, supply
B. profits, losses
C. equipment, materials
D. variable, fixed costs
7) A statistical term that refers to the philosophy and methods companies use to eliminate defects in their products and processes by establishing a quality goal of no more than four defects out of every million units is
A. ISO 9000
B. Six Sigma
C. Total Quality Management
D. SERVQUAL
8) Independent demand is:
A. inventory where demand comes from independent suppliers
B. inventory that is independent of any known rules of demand and supply
C. demand that is related to the demand for another item
D. demand determined by the marketplace that requires forecasting
9) An inventory system designed to ensure that an item will be available on an ongoing basis throughout the year is known as
! A. Optional Replenishment System
B. Inventory Accuracy and Cycle Counting
C. ABC Inventory Planning
D. Multiperiod Inventory Systems
10) A/an __________ approach actually schedules in detail each resource using the setup and runtime required for each order
A. infinite loading
B. finite loading
C. forward scheduling
D. backward scheduling
11) What is the net result of reducing the duration of a task (crashing) not on the critical path?
A. Decreased project overhead costs
B. Reduced likelihood of liquidated damages for late delivery
C. Increased slack time associated with the task
!D. Reduction in the project duration
12) The idea of the value density calculation is
A. finding a carrier that can handle the weight
B. matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier
C. deciding where items should be stocked geographically and how they should be shipped
D. finding the minimum cost carrier
13) When designing a supply chain,
! A. cost vs customer service must be considered
B. quality vs cost must be considered
C. lead times vs payment terms must be considered
D. customer service vs product customization must be considered
14) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Custom products
B. Innovative products
C. Grocery products
D. High technology products
15) Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
A. Price promotions that expire on a specific date
B. An "everyday" low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
C. Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
D. A 2-for-1 price promotion
16) The best operating level is
A. the maximum point of the cost curve
B. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized
C. maximum capacity
D. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized
17) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as
A. Capacity used – best operating level
B. Capacity used x best operating level
C. Capacity used / best operating level
D. Capacity used + best operating level
18) The objective of __________ is to provide an approach for determining the overall capacity level of capital-intensive resources that best supports the company's long-range competitive strategy
A. workforce management
B. management supervision
C. operations management
!D. strategic capacity planning
19) Lean production systems typically require
A. delivery of large lots at frequent intervals
B. buyer inspection of goods and materials
C. multiple sources from which to purchase
D. low inventory levels throughout production
20) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand The next forecast is 66 What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
A. 002
B. 04
C. 004
D. 0.25
21) Linear regression sales forecasting techniques
A. work best when future sales are randomly distributed
B. will not work for declining sales
C. work best when sales are increasing
! D. will not work if future sales forecasts lie on a curve
22) What should the value of alpha be in an exponential smoothing forecast to be very responsive to recent demand?
A. Large
B. Small
C. Negative
D. Zero
23) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting?
A. Time series analysis employs empirical data to forecast future events
B. Time series analysis is used to understand the system underlying and surrounding the item being forecast
C. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-based components such as daily, weekly, etc
D. Time series methods are useful for long-range forecasts when the demand pattern is erratic
24) One option for altering the pattern of demand is
A. hiring employees
B. using overtime
C. carrying inventory
D. pricing
25) Aggregate planners balance
A. demand and costs
B. demand and inventories
C. demand and capacity
D. supply and inventories
26) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy?
A. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deals with the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime
B. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts production to another level and produces at that level for several more months
C. The firm matches its production rate to meet demand by varying the size of its workforce as demand varies
D. The firm produces the same amount each day within the planning period and deals with variations in demand through the use of outsourcing partners
27) Which of the following reflects net material requirements:
A. gross requirements – scheduled receipts
B. gross requirements – projected available balance + scheduled receipts
! C. gross requirements – projected available balance - scheduled receipts
D. gross requirements – scheduled releases
28) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item?
A. Inventory records file
B. Bills of material
C. Master production schedule
D. Capacity planning
29) Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?
A. Based on independent demand
B. Lot sizing is based on Economic Order Quantity
C. Demand pattern is random
D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs
30) A Material Requirements Planning (MRP) is most valuable in industries where a number of products are made in batches using the same productive equipment and with companies involving
!A. fabrication
B. low number of units annually
C. complex, expensive products
D. assembly operations
Click here for the SOLUTION
Emotional intelligence abilities and their relationships with team processesby Nicholas ClarkeSchool of Management, University of Southampton, Southampton, UK
Emotional intelligence abilities and their relationships with team processesby Nicholas ClarkeSchool of Management, University of Southampton, Southampton, UK
Please read the article by Clarke (2010) and answer the following questions in writing using 1,500 words overall. You do not need to write this as an essay, just answer each question individually. Please make sure that you also submit it onto OASISPlus by the deadline. Q1) What is the article by Clarke (2010) all about? Q2) What are the main theoretical predictions of this study? Q3) What are the findings of Clarke’s (2010) study? Q4) How can organisations make use of these findings?
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Please read the article by Clarke (2010) and answer the following questions in writing using 1,500 words overall. You do not need to write this as an essay, just answer each question individually. Please make sure that you also submit it onto OASISPlus by the deadline. Q1) What is the article by Clarke (2010) all about? Q2) What are the main theoretical predictions of this study? Q3) What are the findings of Clarke’s (2010) study? Q4) How can organisations make use of these findings?
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Integrative Cae The Donor Services Department
Integrative Cae The Donor Services Department
General steps to follow (for both writing and presentation): 1) List the facts. 2) Make inferences about the facts. 3) What is the problem (and Why)? 4) Possible solutions to the problem. 5) For each alternative, list positive and negative consequences. 6) Make decision and provide rationale for it. 7) Describe your “lessons learned” form the case.
650 words paper
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General steps to follow (for both writing and presentation): 1) List the facts. 2) Make inferences about the facts. 3) What is the problem (and Why)? 4) Possible solutions to the problem. 5) For each alternative, list positive and negative consequences. 6) Make decision and provide rationale for it. 7) Describe your “lessons learned” form the case.
650 words paper
Click here for the SOLUTION
The Property, located in Brooklyn, New York, is a 326,608 gross square foot, six story, structure located north of the Williamsburg Bridge
BROOKLYN, NY
BACKGROUND
The Property, located in Brooklyn, New York, is a 326,608 gross square foot, six story, structure located north of the Williamsburg Bridge. The Property is bounded by the East River to the west, K avenue to the east, North 3rd street to the south and North 4th street to the North. Occupying an entire city block, the Property sits on 3.03 acres and has an 82,429 square foot floor plate. The building is currently unoccupied and certain demolition has commenced. The U.S. Department of the Interior National Park Service and the New York State Historic Preservation Office have approved the rehabilitation plan. Residential unit sizes and layouts have been optimized based on the façade and window locations resulting in approximately 270,000 square feet of rentable area and 338 units. Many units will have city and water views and all units will feature loft style finishes and high ceilings. Ground floor retail space will total approximately 17,000 square feet and the Property will have parking spaces on the cellar, first and second floors. Other amenities include an extensive fitness and gym facility with water views, library, TV and activity lounge, children’s playroom, a landscaped private garden on the second floor, a large third floor courtyard, roof top terrace, on-site leasing office, and 24 hour doorman and security. Because the project qualifies for New York City’s J-51 Tax Benefit, there will be no real estate taxes until 11/1/2019. After that date, taxes will be phased in at 20% per annum over the following five years.
ASSIGNMENT
Suppose that you are a tax credit investor considering making an equity investment in this project. In addition to the tax credits that you will receive, you will also be paid a preferred return of 2% annually from available cash flow. Tax credits can be used dollar-for-dollar to offset federal income tax liability.
Please construct a 10-year pro-forma income statement for the project using the information provided in the attached Excel workbook.
Using the information from the project’s operations, please provide a 1 page narrative describing whether or not you would invest in this project and why. Please provide any supporting analysis used to reach your conclusion and state any assumptions that you have made.
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BACKGROUND
The Property, located in Brooklyn, New York, is a 326,608 gross square foot, six story, structure located north of the Williamsburg Bridge. The Property is bounded by the East River to the west, K avenue to the east, North 3rd street to the south and North 4th street to the North. Occupying an entire city block, the Property sits on 3.03 acres and has an 82,429 square foot floor plate. The building is currently unoccupied and certain demolition has commenced. The U.S. Department of the Interior National Park Service and the New York State Historic Preservation Office have approved the rehabilitation plan. Residential unit sizes and layouts have been optimized based on the façade and window locations resulting in approximately 270,000 square feet of rentable area and 338 units. Many units will have city and water views and all units will feature loft style finishes and high ceilings. Ground floor retail space will total approximately 17,000 square feet and the Property will have parking spaces on the cellar, first and second floors. Other amenities include an extensive fitness and gym facility with water views, library, TV and activity lounge, children’s playroom, a landscaped private garden on the second floor, a large third floor courtyard, roof top terrace, on-site leasing office, and 24 hour doorman and security. Because the project qualifies for New York City’s J-51 Tax Benefit, there will be no real estate taxes until 11/1/2019. After that date, taxes will be phased in at 20% per annum over the following five years.
ASSIGNMENT
Suppose that you are a tax credit investor considering making an equity investment in this project. In addition to the tax credits that you will receive, you will also be paid a preferred return of 2% annually from available cash flow. Tax credits can be used dollar-for-dollar to offset federal income tax liability.
Please construct a 10-year pro-forma income statement for the project using the information provided in the attached Excel workbook.
Using the information from the project’s operations, please provide a 1 page narrative describing whether or not you would invest in this project and why. Please provide any supporting analysis used to reach your conclusion and state any assumptions that you have made.
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Tuscarora Hardwoods, a custom manufacturer of furniture, uses job-order costing
Tuscarora Hardwoods, a custom manufacturer of furniture, uses job-order costing. The following tran.-
actions to support job MRS-55 for a custom meeting room set-a large table plus 16 chairs-occurre:
in January:
a. Purchased $10,000 ofraw materials.
b. Issued $500 of supplies from raw-material inventory.
c. Purchased $7,000 ofraw material.
d. Paid for the raw material purchased in transaction (a).
e. Issued $8,500 in raw material to the production department.
f. Incurred production labor costs of $12,500, which were credited to Payroll Payable.
g. Paid $23,250 cash for utilities, power, equipment maintenance, and miscellaneous items for the
manufacturing plant.
h. Applied overhead on the basis of 185 percent of $8,500 in material costs.
i. Recognized depreciation on manufacturing property, plant, and equipment of $6,250.
Required
Prepare journal entries to record these transactions.
Click here for the SOLUTION
actions to support job MRS-55 for a custom meeting room set-a large table plus 16 chairs-occurre:
in January:
a. Purchased $10,000 ofraw materials.
b. Issued $500 of supplies from raw-material inventory.
c. Purchased $7,000 ofraw material.
d. Paid for the raw material purchased in transaction (a).
e. Issued $8,500 in raw material to the production department.
f. Incurred production labor costs of $12,500, which were credited to Payroll Payable.
g. Paid $23,250 cash for utilities, power, equipment maintenance, and miscellaneous items for the
manufacturing plant.
h. Applied overhead on the basis of 185 percent of $8,500 in material costs.
i. Recognized depreciation on manufacturing property, plant, and equipment of $6,250.
Required
Prepare journal entries to record these transactions.
Click here for the SOLUTION
The 601 blue Jean Company has decided to allocate the cost of its warehouse and distribution centre to its customers using activity-based costing
The 601 blue Jean Company has decided to allocate the cost of its warehouse and distribution centre to its customers using activity-based costing, In order to better assess profitability by customer. The warehouse manager determines that the only costs that are economically feasible to trace directly to the customer are outbound freight costs. The manager then decides that the following overhead cost pools should be allocated to customers using the following cost drivers:
Overhead Cost Pool
Cost Driver(Allocation Base)
Order Processing Department
Order Filling Department
Quality Control Department
Shipping Department
Number of individual orders processed for that customer
Number of line items on all pull-tickets for that customer
Numbers of cartons shipped to that customer
Number of cartons shipped to that customer
Following are relevant data for each overhead cost pool
Order Processing Department
Total costs of this department
Total number of orders processed
Order Filling Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of line-items on all pull tickets
Quality Control Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of cartons shipped
Shipping Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of cartons shipped
$3,000,000
$200,000
$4,000,000
$4,000,000
$500,000
$2,000,000
$7,500,000
$2,000,000
Following is information pertaining to two customers:
7-9-11 Stores:
Sales revenue for the year
Number of orders
Number of pull ticket line-items
Number of cartons
Outbound freight costs
Men’s Large and Big Stores:
Sales revenue for the year
Number of orders
Number of pull ticket line-items
Number of cartons
Outbound freight costs
$2,400,000
$500
$100,000
$50,000
$75,000
$1,500,000
$250
$20,000
$40,000
$56,000
Required:
A) Compute the overhead rates for each of the four overhead cost pools
B) Calculate the amount of overhead that would be applied to 7-9-11 Stores
C) Calculate the amount of overhead that would be applied to Men’s Large & Big Stores
D) Explain (in one or two sentences) or show (by calculation) how your answer to parts (B) and (C) would change if the company combined Quality Control and Shipping into one overhead cost pool, and allocated overhead for this cost pool to customers based on the number of cartons shipped to that customer.
Click here for the SOLUTION
Overhead Cost Pool
Cost Driver(Allocation Base)
Order Processing Department
Order Filling Department
Quality Control Department
Shipping Department
Number of individual orders processed for that customer
Number of line items on all pull-tickets for that customer
Numbers of cartons shipped to that customer
Number of cartons shipped to that customer
Following are relevant data for each overhead cost pool
Order Processing Department
Total costs of this department
Total number of orders processed
Order Filling Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of line-items on all pull tickets
Quality Control Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of cartons shipped
Shipping Department
Total cost of this department
Total number of cartons shipped
$3,000,000
$200,000
$4,000,000
$4,000,000
$500,000
$2,000,000
$7,500,000
$2,000,000
Following is information pertaining to two customers:
7-9-11 Stores:
Sales revenue for the year
Number of orders
Number of pull ticket line-items
Number of cartons
Outbound freight costs
Men’s Large and Big Stores:
Sales revenue for the year
Number of orders
Number of pull ticket line-items
Number of cartons
Outbound freight costs
$2,400,000
$500
$100,000
$50,000
$75,000
$1,500,000
$250
$20,000
$40,000
$56,000
Required:
A) Compute the overhead rates for each of the four overhead cost pools
B) Calculate the amount of overhead that would be applied to 7-9-11 Stores
C) Calculate the amount of overhead that would be applied to Men’s Large & Big Stores
D) Explain (in one or two sentences) or show (by calculation) how your answer to parts (B) and (C) would change if the company combined Quality Control and Shipping into one overhead cost pool, and allocated overhead for this cost pool to customers based on the number of cartons shipped to that customer.
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LAW 531 Final Exam
LAW 531 Final Exam
1) The concept of flexibility in the law is best illustrated by:
2) The school of jurisprudence that believes that free market forces should determine the outcome to lawsuits is:
3) Which of the following is true about litigating commercial disputes?
4) A ___________ is a court appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgement.
5) ________ is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another.
6) Which form of alternative dispute resolution occurs when the parties choose an impartial third party to hear and decide their dispute?
7) The Double Diamond Dude Ranch is located in Montana and maintains a web site on the Internet Before the Internet, the ranch relied exclusively on word-of-mouth advertising The web site simply provides some general information and lists the ranch's phone number for reservations, but reservations cannot be made online The ranch has no other connections or presence outside of Montana Bob lives in Ohio and learned of the ranch through its web site Bob then spent a week as a paying guest at the ranch, but was injured when he fell off a horse Can Bob sue the dude ranch in Ohio state court?
8) What is the result of the "effects on interstate commerce" test?
9) If there is an area of interstate commerce that the federal government has not chosen to regulate, the states can:
10) The legal effect of the presence of a superceding event is that:
11) If a plaintiff voluntarily enters into or participates into a risk activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense that he or she may use to a defendant's claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?
12) The tort of palming off involves:
13) Based on the law of product liability, which of the following is correct?
14) Sean has a 6 year old car which he bought 2 years ago from its original owner Eight months ago he received a recall notice about a safety problem with the brakes He never responded to the notice Yesterday Sean was driving when the brakes failed and caused him to strike and injure a pedestrian Which of the following is true in lawsuits against the car's manufacturer?
15) Little Bobby, five years old, finds his brothers Extendo Sword, which is a toy sword about a foot long which spring out to about five feet long when a button on the handle is pushed His mother tells him to put it down because he will hurt someone if he's not careful Bobby pushes the button when the sword is pointed toward his face and, just as all properly functioning Extendo Swords do, the sword shoots out Bobby is injured and, under products liability, sues the toy store which sold the toy Bobby will most likely:
16) Under federal rules regulating food and drugs, which of the following is true?
17) Which of the following statements best describes the procedures under the Clean Air Act?
18) Mary applied for a permit with a federal administrative agency to operate a business within the boundaries of a popular national forest The agency grants a limited number of these permits that allow operation of the business during the busy tourist season The agency has turned down Mary's application even though she received a permit in the prior year, paid the related fees on time, and violated none of the permit's conditions The agency granted a permit to a different applicant who had never run this type of business previously If Mary appeals the decision to a court, what standard of review will it most likely use?
19) What is the most basic or common remedy available for breach of a contract?
20) The circumstances where an offer cannot be withdrawn under promissory estoppel is also known as:
21) Which of the following is correct regarding a counteroffer?
22) A contract for the sale of land:
23) What does the parol evidence rule do?
24) John is president and sole shareholder of Photo, Inc Photo, Inc wishes to borrow money, but to do so, the bank requires John to orally guarantee to repay the loan if Photo, Inc cannot John's guaranty to repay is:
25) Licensing of informational rights can best be described as:
26) Which of the following best describes how e-mail contracts are viewed under the law?
27) Under the Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act, tender of performance is:
28) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant When it was learned he was a homosexual, he was fired This action is:
29) Which is true about the two kinds of discrimination that are actionable under Title VII?
30) Which of the following is true about sexual harassment in the workplace?
31) Minimum wage, hours of employment, and child labor are regulated by the:
32) Which of the following is true about the provisions of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) as they related to health insurance?
33) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?
34) Edward's Warehouse stores a variety of generic goods for several distributors in Anytown Which of the following describes Edward's liability for the bailed goods should something happen to them?
35) A bailment is:
36) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property?
37) What was accomplished by the Visual Artists Rights Act?
38) Which of the following is true about misappropriation of trade secrets?
39) A doctrine that says a patent may not be granted if the invention was used by the public for more than a certain period of time prior to the filing of the patent application is known as;
40) How does an easement appurtenant differ from an easement in gross?
41) Sam sells property to Betty and delivers Betty a deed that says "This property is conveyed to Betty so long as she never operates a bar on the premises." If she operates a bar on the premises, Sam Seller may take possession of the property. The type of interest that Betty Buyer has acquired is a:
42) Which of the following is true about a life estate?
43) What makes a publicly held corporation different from a public corporation?
44) Limited partners can lose their limited liability by Breaching the fiduciary duty to the limited partnership.:
45) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, then which of the following is true?
46) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act provides for the establishment of the _____________ to over see audits of public companies. This will be done to protect the interests of shareholders and investors.
47) The Sarbane-Oxley Act of 2002 was enacted in order to:
48) According to Sarbanes-Oxley, this person or people should sign the Federal income tax return of a corporation:
49) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer's/director's duty of care?
50) In what ways may officers and directors protect themselves from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?
51) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA's report In these circumstances, the board is:
Click here for the SOLUTION
1) The concept of flexibility in the law is best illustrated by:
2) The school of jurisprudence that believes that free market forces should determine the outcome to lawsuits is:
3) Which of the following is true about litigating commercial disputes?
4) A ___________ is a court appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgement.
5) ________ is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another.
6) Which form of alternative dispute resolution occurs when the parties choose an impartial third party to hear and decide their dispute?
7) The Double Diamond Dude Ranch is located in Montana and maintains a web site on the Internet Before the Internet, the ranch relied exclusively on word-of-mouth advertising The web site simply provides some general information and lists the ranch's phone number for reservations, but reservations cannot be made online The ranch has no other connections or presence outside of Montana Bob lives in Ohio and learned of the ranch through its web site Bob then spent a week as a paying guest at the ranch, but was injured when he fell off a horse Can Bob sue the dude ranch in Ohio state court?
8) What is the result of the "effects on interstate commerce" test?
9) If there is an area of interstate commerce that the federal government has not chosen to regulate, the states can:
10) The legal effect of the presence of a superceding event is that:
11) If a plaintiff voluntarily enters into or participates into a risk activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense that he or she may use to a defendant's claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?
12) The tort of palming off involves:
13) Based on the law of product liability, which of the following is correct?
14) Sean has a 6 year old car which he bought 2 years ago from its original owner Eight months ago he received a recall notice about a safety problem with the brakes He never responded to the notice Yesterday Sean was driving when the brakes failed and caused him to strike and injure a pedestrian Which of the following is true in lawsuits against the car's manufacturer?
15) Little Bobby, five years old, finds his brothers Extendo Sword, which is a toy sword about a foot long which spring out to about five feet long when a button on the handle is pushed His mother tells him to put it down because he will hurt someone if he's not careful Bobby pushes the button when the sword is pointed toward his face and, just as all properly functioning Extendo Swords do, the sword shoots out Bobby is injured and, under products liability, sues the toy store which sold the toy Bobby will most likely:
16) Under federal rules regulating food and drugs, which of the following is true?
17) Which of the following statements best describes the procedures under the Clean Air Act?
18) Mary applied for a permit with a federal administrative agency to operate a business within the boundaries of a popular national forest The agency grants a limited number of these permits that allow operation of the business during the busy tourist season The agency has turned down Mary's application even though she received a permit in the prior year, paid the related fees on time, and violated none of the permit's conditions The agency granted a permit to a different applicant who had never run this type of business previously If Mary appeals the decision to a court, what standard of review will it most likely use?
19) What is the most basic or common remedy available for breach of a contract?
20) The circumstances where an offer cannot be withdrawn under promissory estoppel is also known as:
21) Which of the following is correct regarding a counteroffer?
22) A contract for the sale of land:
23) What does the parol evidence rule do?
24) John is president and sole shareholder of Photo, Inc Photo, Inc wishes to borrow money, but to do so, the bank requires John to orally guarantee to repay the loan if Photo, Inc cannot John's guaranty to repay is:
25) Licensing of informational rights can best be described as:
26) Which of the following best describes how e-mail contracts are viewed under the law?
27) Under the Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act, tender of performance is:
28) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant When it was learned he was a homosexual, he was fired This action is:
29) Which is true about the two kinds of discrimination that are actionable under Title VII?
30) Which of the following is true about sexual harassment in the workplace?
31) Minimum wage, hours of employment, and child labor are regulated by the:
32) Which of the following is true about the provisions of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) as they related to health insurance?
33) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?
34) Edward's Warehouse stores a variety of generic goods for several distributors in Anytown Which of the following describes Edward's liability for the bailed goods should something happen to them?
35) A bailment is:
36) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property?
37) What was accomplished by the Visual Artists Rights Act?
38) Which of the following is true about misappropriation of trade secrets?
39) A doctrine that says a patent may not be granted if the invention was used by the public for more than a certain period of time prior to the filing of the patent application is known as;
40) How does an easement appurtenant differ from an easement in gross?
41) Sam sells property to Betty and delivers Betty a deed that says "This property is conveyed to Betty so long as she never operates a bar on the premises." If she operates a bar on the premises, Sam Seller may take possession of the property. The type of interest that Betty Buyer has acquired is a:
42) Which of the following is true about a life estate?
43) What makes a publicly held corporation different from a public corporation?
44) Limited partners can lose their limited liability by Breaching the fiduciary duty to the limited partnership.:
45) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, then which of the following is true?
46) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act provides for the establishment of the _____________ to over see audits of public companies. This will be done to protect the interests of shareholders and investors.
47) The Sarbane-Oxley Act of 2002 was enacted in order to:
48) According to Sarbanes-Oxley, this person or people should sign the Federal income tax return of a corporation:
49) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer's/director's duty of care?
50) In what ways may officers and directors protect themselves from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?
51) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA's report In these circumstances, the board is:
Click here for the SOLUTION
LAW 421 FINAL EXAM
LAW 421 FINAL EXAM
1) Which of the following does not result in a decision rendered by the hearing officer?
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Med-arb
D. Using expert evaluators
2) Jurisprudence is defined as
A. adjudication of law suits
B. the enactment of laws by a government body
C. the science and philosophy of law
D. the duties and obligations owed by a citizen
3) The state of Kansas has enacted a new law requiring all commercial trucks driving on Kansas roads to have special mud flaps installed. These mud flaps have been proven to make driving in the rain significantly safer due to reduced mist created by trucks driving in the rain, although data regarding accidents and injuries has not yet been determined. Any truck entering Kansas must have these flaps installed or will be subject to a significant fine and delay. The cost for purchase and installation of these flaps is $1,000 per truck. In short, trucks must have these flaps or go around the state. This Kansas law
A. is valid because it only applies to Kansas roads and such a law is entirely intrastate
B. is valid because Kansas's right to protect its citizens under its police powers will override any outside challenges to this law
C. is invalid because this law is intended to regulate interstate commerce, an enumerated federal power
D. is invalid because although on its face it's an intrastate law, this statute will have a significant economic effect on interstate commerce causing an undue burden
4) The power of preemption is derived from
A. the power of judicial review
B. the Commerce Clause
C. the Necessary and Proper Clause
D. the Supremacy Clause
5) What is the main problem with international courts?
A. Finding judges who understand the complexities of international law
B. Creating a body of law that reflects multiple legal systems
C. Enforcing a ruling on sovereign nations is difficult
D. Lack of recognition from the U.N. and WTO
6) Under the U.S. legal system, subject to some exceptions, costs of litigation regarding both the plaintiff and defendant
A. are all paid by the loser
B. are all paid by the winner
C. are paid for by each side with the plaintiff and defendant paying for their own legal costs
D. are totaled by the court and then for fairness, split in half with each side paying an equal amount
7) Generally, torts law is governed by
A. state statutory law
B. state common law
C. federal statutory law
D. constitutional law
8) Assumption of risk is a defense to
A. conversion
B. negligence
C. defamation
D. battery
9) The three stripes on Adidas clothing represents a
A. trademark
B. trade dress
C. trade secret
D. patent
10) The color or shape of an item, if distinctive, is a
A. trademark
B. trade dress
C. copyright
D. patent
11) Cybersquatting describes the practice of
A. registering multiple domain names and then selling them back to companies at inflated prices
B. hacking into a company's website to install a virus or Trojan horse designed to steal information but allow the site to continue operation
C. using mechanical devises to access a company's website multiple times to the point that traffic to the site is slowed or blocked
D. hacking into a company's website to install a virus designed to cause the company's website to totally cease operation
12) The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (1998) provided each of the following protections EXCEPT
A. manufacturers of CD-Writers were required to pay 2% of their sales into a fund to be distributed to copyright holders because the CD-Writers could easily copy music and other copyrighted works
B. civil and criminal penalties were established for those who sell or manufacture products or services that circumvent antipiracy software
C. restrictions were placed on analog recorders and camcorders that lack antipiracy features
D. ISPs were relieved of liability for copyright infringement by their users as long as the ISP had no knowledge of the infringement
13) When Maria comes home from work, she finds that her yard has been mowed and trimmed. An hour later, a man comes to her door to collect payment for the yard work. Maria refuses to pay him because she has never seen him before nor had she hired him to do the work. Which of the following is accurate?
A. This is an implied, unilateral contract, so she must pay.
B. Maria has received unjust enrichment so a quasi contract is formed, so she must pay.
C. The court would make Maria pay the reasonable cost of the work to be fair to both parties.
D. Maria would not have to pay anything.
14) Where a promise can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom it is offered is an example of a/an
A. bilateral contract
B. unilateral contract
C. implied contract
D. quasi contract
15) Each of the following is a discharge by mutual consent EXCEPT
A. accord and satisfaction
B. novation
C. rescission
D. frustration of purpose
16) Harry sees an AK-47 automatic assault rifle in a gun shop window. He inquires about the price and is told that it is $2,500. Harry signs a contract promising to pay the $2,500 on Friday, taking possession of the rifle when payment is made. On Thursday, a law is enacted making the ownership, sale, or possession of an automatic rifle illegal. This contract
A. automatically terminates due to impossibility
B. automatically terminates due to impracticability
C. automatically terminates due to frustration of purpose
D. is enforceable and not affected by the new law because it was entered into before the law took effect
17) Which of the following is rarely awarded in contracts cases?
A. Consequential damages
B. Compensatory damages
C. Punitive damages
D. Liquidated damages
18) Which of the following is classified as an equitable remedy?
A. Consequential damages
B. Reformation
C. Restitution
D. Liquidated damages
19) Which of the following would not be considered tangible?
A. A car
B. Oxygen
C. The right of ownership
D. The pen or pencil you are using
20) With regard to consideration in a sales contract, the UCC differs from the common law in that
A. consideration in a sales contract may be modified without additional consideration
B. consideration exchanged must be equal or very closely equal in sales contracts
C. consideration is not required in sales contracts
D. consideration in a sales contract may be modified as long as additional consideration is provided
21) The UCC will permit an incomplete or slightly ambiguous contract to be enforced using each of the following criteria EXCEPT
A. past commercial conduct
B. industry standards or norms
C. judicial input of any terms necessary to maintain fairness
D. correspondence or verbal exchanges between the parties
22) Two merchant companies have entered into a contract for the sale of goods but have had no prior dealings, which would establish a course of conduct between them. The UCC will allow gap fillers to apply to their contract regarding missing terms in each of the following situations EXCEPT
A. they have failed to specify when payment for the goods is to be made
B. they have failed to specify where delivery of the goods is to be made
C. they have failed to specify the quality or grade of the goods to be delivered
D. they have failed to specify the price of the goods to be delivered
23) When a buyer rejects nonconforming goods and purchases the appropriate goods from a different seller, this is an example of which of the following:
A. Cover
B. Specific Performance
C. Lawsuit for Money Damages
D. Revoking Acceptance
24) Which of these is not a requirement for disclaiming a warranty?
A. Statutory authorization
B. A conspicuous writing
C. Explaining why the warranty is being disclaimed
D. Including the word merchantability if merchantability is to be disclaimed
25) "What if everyone took these same actions" is a question sometimes called the
A. universalization approach
B. utilitarian approach
C. functionality approach
D. morality approach
26) The utilitarian approach to moral philosophy was founded by
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Immanuel Kant
C. Cicero
D. Kenneth Lay
27) Stan is an investment manager. He has received money from various investors with a promise of very high returns on their investments. The invested money is not supplying enough capital in order to pay the returns promised, so he has started using new investor's money to pay older investors. By advertising and by word of mouth, people are anxious to invest with Stan because of the money being paid, and with the influx of new investors, he is able to continue operating. Stan is
A. operating an insider trading operation
B. racketeering
C. guilty of conspiracy to defraud
D. operating a Ponzi scheme
28) Ben is the manager of a branch of a large bank. He has regularly taken money from customer's accounts for his own use and changed the bank records to cover his actions. Ben is guilty of
A. a conspiracy
B. a Ponzi scheme
C. racketeering
D. embezzlement
29) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (2002) imposed stricter regulations on how corporations do business through regulations in each of the following areas EXCEPT
A. tax compliance
B. financial reporting
C. corporate governance
D. auditing
30) Joan is the CFO of Para Corp. and is a year from retirement. In order to guarantee herself a very substantial bonus and to boost her retirement package, she knowingly certifies false financial reports making the company appear to be much more profitable than it really is. She further takes steps to assure that the financial report was not reviewed through internal controls maintained by Para Corp. Under the provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (2002), if her fraud is NOT part of a larger scheme, what criminal penalties are possible for Joan?
A. $1 million in fines and up to 10 years in prison
B. $2 million in fines and up to 12 years in prison
C. $5 million in fines and up to 15 years in prison
D. $10 million in fines and up to 20 years in prison
Click here for the SOLUTION
1) Which of the following does not result in a decision rendered by the hearing officer?
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Med-arb
D. Using expert evaluators
2) Jurisprudence is defined as
A. adjudication of law suits
B. the enactment of laws by a government body
C. the science and philosophy of law
D. the duties and obligations owed by a citizen
3) The state of Kansas has enacted a new law requiring all commercial trucks driving on Kansas roads to have special mud flaps installed. These mud flaps have been proven to make driving in the rain significantly safer due to reduced mist created by trucks driving in the rain, although data regarding accidents and injuries has not yet been determined. Any truck entering Kansas must have these flaps installed or will be subject to a significant fine and delay. The cost for purchase and installation of these flaps is $1,000 per truck. In short, trucks must have these flaps or go around the state. This Kansas law
A. is valid because it only applies to Kansas roads and such a law is entirely intrastate
B. is valid because Kansas's right to protect its citizens under its police powers will override any outside challenges to this law
C. is invalid because this law is intended to regulate interstate commerce, an enumerated federal power
D. is invalid because although on its face it's an intrastate law, this statute will have a significant economic effect on interstate commerce causing an undue burden
4) The power of preemption is derived from
A. the power of judicial review
B. the Commerce Clause
C. the Necessary and Proper Clause
D. the Supremacy Clause
5) What is the main problem with international courts?
A. Finding judges who understand the complexities of international law
B. Creating a body of law that reflects multiple legal systems
C. Enforcing a ruling on sovereign nations is difficult
D. Lack of recognition from the U.N. and WTO
6) Under the U.S. legal system, subject to some exceptions, costs of litigation regarding both the plaintiff and defendant
A. are all paid by the loser
B. are all paid by the winner
C. are paid for by each side with the plaintiff and defendant paying for their own legal costs
D. are totaled by the court and then for fairness, split in half with each side paying an equal amount
7) Generally, torts law is governed by
A. state statutory law
B. state common law
C. federal statutory law
D. constitutional law
8) Assumption of risk is a defense to
A. conversion
B. negligence
C. defamation
D. battery
9) The three stripes on Adidas clothing represents a
A. trademark
B. trade dress
C. trade secret
D. patent
10) The color or shape of an item, if distinctive, is a
A. trademark
B. trade dress
C. copyright
D. patent
11) Cybersquatting describes the practice of
A. registering multiple domain names and then selling them back to companies at inflated prices
B. hacking into a company's website to install a virus or Trojan horse designed to steal information but allow the site to continue operation
C. using mechanical devises to access a company's website multiple times to the point that traffic to the site is slowed or blocked
D. hacking into a company's website to install a virus designed to cause the company's website to totally cease operation
12) The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (1998) provided each of the following protections EXCEPT
A. manufacturers of CD-Writers were required to pay 2% of their sales into a fund to be distributed to copyright holders because the CD-Writers could easily copy music and other copyrighted works
B. civil and criminal penalties were established for those who sell or manufacture products or services that circumvent antipiracy software
C. restrictions were placed on analog recorders and camcorders that lack antipiracy features
D. ISPs were relieved of liability for copyright infringement by their users as long as the ISP had no knowledge of the infringement
13) When Maria comes home from work, she finds that her yard has been mowed and trimmed. An hour later, a man comes to her door to collect payment for the yard work. Maria refuses to pay him because she has never seen him before nor had she hired him to do the work. Which of the following is accurate?
A. This is an implied, unilateral contract, so she must pay.
B. Maria has received unjust enrichment so a quasi contract is formed, so she must pay.
C. The court would make Maria pay the reasonable cost of the work to be fair to both parties.
D. Maria would not have to pay anything.
14) Where a promise can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom it is offered is an example of a/an
A. bilateral contract
B. unilateral contract
C. implied contract
D. quasi contract
15) Each of the following is a discharge by mutual consent EXCEPT
A. accord and satisfaction
B. novation
C. rescission
D. frustration of purpose
16) Harry sees an AK-47 automatic assault rifle in a gun shop window. He inquires about the price and is told that it is $2,500. Harry signs a contract promising to pay the $2,500 on Friday, taking possession of the rifle when payment is made. On Thursday, a law is enacted making the ownership, sale, or possession of an automatic rifle illegal. This contract
A. automatically terminates due to impossibility
B. automatically terminates due to impracticability
C. automatically terminates due to frustration of purpose
D. is enforceable and not affected by the new law because it was entered into before the law took effect
17) Which of the following is rarely awarded in contracts cases?
A. Consequential damages
B. Compensatory damages
C. Punitive damages
D. Liquidated damages
18) Which of the following is classified as an equitable remedy?
A. Consequential damages
B. Reformation
C. Restitution
D. Liquidated damages
19) Which of the following would not be considered tangible?
A. A car
B. Oxygen
C. The right of ownership
D. The pen or pencil you are using
20) With regard to consideration in a sales contract, the UCC differs from the common law in that
A. consideration in a sales contract may be modified without additional consideration
B. consideration exchanged must be equal or very closely equal in sales contracts
C. consideration is not required in sales contracts
D. consideration in a sales contract may be modified as long as additional consideration is provided
21) The UCC will permit an incomplete or slightly ambiguous contract to be enforced using each of the following criteria EXCEPT
A. past commercial conduct
B. industry standards or norms
C. judicial input of any terms necessary to maintain fairness
D. correspondence or verbal exchanges between the parties
22) Two merchant companies have entered into a contract for the sale of goods but have had no prior dealings, which would establish a course of conduct between them. The UCC will allow gap fillers to apply to their contract regarding missing terms in each of the following situations EXCEPT
A. they have failed to specify when payment for the goods is to be made
B. they have failed to specify where delivery of the goods is to be made
C. they have failed to specify the quality or grade of the goods to be delivered
D. they have failed to specify the price of the goods to be delivered
23) When a buyer rejects nonconforming goods and purchases the appropriate goods from a different seller, this is an example of which of the following:
A. Cover
B. Specific Performance
C. Lawsuit for Money Damages
D. Revoking Acceptance
24) Which of these is not a requirement for disclaiming a warranty?
A. Statutory authorization
B. A conspicuous writing
C. Explaining why the warranty is being disclaimed
D. Including the word merchantability if merchantability is to be disclaimed
25) "What if everyone took these same actions" is a question sometimes called the
A. universalization approach
B. utilitarian approach
C. functionality approach
D. morality approach
26) The utilitarian approach to moral philosophy was founded by
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Immanuel Kant
C. Cicero
D. Kenneth Lay
27) Stan is an investment manager. He has received money from various investors with a promise of very high returns on their investments. The invested money is not supplying enough capital in order to pay the returns promised, so he has started using new investor's money to pay older investors. By advertising and by word of mouth, people are anxious to invest with Stan because of the money being paid, and with the influx of new investors, he is able to continue operating. Stan is
A. operating an insider trading operation
B. racketeering
C. guilty of conspiracy to defraud
D. operating a Ponzi scheme
28) Ben is the manager of a branch of a large bank. He has regularly taken money from customer's accounts for his own use and changed the bank records to cover his actions. Ben is guilty of
A. a conspiracy
B. a Ponzi scheme
C. racketeering
D. embezzlement
29) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (2002) imposed stricter regulations on how corporations do business through regulations in each of the following areas EXCEPT
A. tax compliance
B. financial reporting
C. corporate governance
D. auditing
30) Joan is the CFO of Para Corp. and is a year from retirement. In order to guarantee herself a very substantial bonus and to boost her retirement package, she knowingly certifies false financial reports making the company appear to be much more profitable than it really is. She further takes steps to assure that the financial report was not reviewed through internal controls maintained by Para Corp. Under the provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (2002), if her fraud is NOT part of a larger scheme, what criminal penalties are possible for Joan?
A. $1 million in fines and up to 10 years in prison
B. $2 million in fines and up to 12 years in prison
C. $5 million in fines and up to 15 years in prison
D. $10 million in fines and up to 20 years in prison
Click here for the SOLUTION